[2017 New] Lead2pass Latest 400-101 PDF Guarantee 100% Pass 400-101 (281-300)
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Following questions and answers are all new published by Cisco Official Exam Center: https://www.lead2pass.com/400-101.html
Which two statements about static routing are ture?(Choose two)
A. It is highly scalable as networks grow
B. It reduces configuration errors
C. It can be implemented more quickly that dynamic routing
D. It provides better security than dynamic routing
E. It requires less bandwidth and fewer CPU cycles than dynamic routing protocols
Which value does VPLS use to make forwarding decisions?
A. destination IP address of the packet
B. destination MAC of the Ethernet frame
C. source IP address of the packet
D. source MAC of the Ethernet frame
Which three configuration settings must match for switches to be in the same MST region?(Choose three)
B. region name
C. VLAN-to-instance assignment
D. revision number
E. VLAN names
F. domain name
Refer to the exhibit. If R4 is configured as shown, which EIGRP routes are present in the R1 routing table?
A. 220.127.116.11/32 and 10.2.4.0/24 only
B. 18.104.22.168/32 and 10.1.4.0/24 only
C. 22.214.171.124/32,10.2.4.0/24,and 126.96.36.199/32
D. 0.0.0.0/0,188.8.131.52/32,and 10.2.4.0/24
E. 0.0.0.0/0 and 184.108.40.206/32 only
Which two statements about IPv6 multicast address are true? (Choose two)
A. An IPv6 host must join the solicited-node multicast group for every unicast and anycast address on the node
B. IPv6 routers update their routing tables when they receive a redirect message on a segment
C. Solicited-node multicast addresses are based on the lower-order 24 bits of the unicast or anycast address
D. They perform neighbor unreachability detection only for neighbors that send multicast packets
E. Neighbors respone to solicitation messages by sending Router Advertisement message
F. They use UDP packets to perform neighbor unreachability detection
Which type of access list allows granular session filtering for upper-level protocols?
A. reflexive access lists
B. context-based access lists
C. content-based access lists
D. extended access lists
In which scenario can asymmetric routing occur?
A. redundant routers running VRRP
B. active/standby firewall setup
C. active/active firewall setup
D. single path in and out of the network
Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the show ip cef command for an address?
A. CEF cannot switch packet for this route and drops it
B. CEF is unable to get routing information for this route
C. CEF cannot switch packet for this route and passes it to the next best switching method
D. A valid entry and is punted to hardware-based forwarding
Which two statements about Management Plane Protection are true?(Choose two)
A. It supports the SNMP,ssh,TFTP,and HTTP management protocols
B. It supports in-band and out-of-band management interfaces
C. It is enabled by default,but it allows all manangement protocols to pass freely through all interfaces until it is configured
D. It can handle management traffic when IP Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled
E. It provides granular control over the management protocols that are allowed on an interface
F. It works only on out-of-band management interfaces
A network engineer enables OSPF on a Frame Relay WAN connection to various remote sites,but no OSPF adjacencies come up.Which two actions are possible solutions for this issue?(Choose two)
A. Change the network type to nonbroadcast multipoint access
B. Configure the neighbor command under OSPF process for each remote site
C. Ensure that the OSPF process number matches among all remote sites
D. Enable virtual links
E. Change the network type to point-to-multipoint under WAN interface
Which two statements about route redistribution default metrics are true?(Choose two)
A. When an IGP is redistributed into RIP, it has a default metric of 1
B. When an IGP is redistributed into OSPF, it has a default metric of 110
C. When an IGP is redistributed into IS-IS, it has a default metric of 115
D. When EIGRP is redistributed into OSPF as E2, it has a default metric of 20
E. When BGP is redistributed into OSPF, it has a default metric of 1
Which two GRE features can you configure to prevent fragmentation?(Choose two)
A. UDP window sizes
B. IP MTU
D. MTU ignore
E. TCP MSS
F. DF bit clear
Which three statements about AToM are true?(Choose three)
A. The PE routers must share the same VC identifier
B. It requires Layer 3 routing between the PE and CE router
C. It requires MPLS between the PE routers
D. IP CEF should be disabled on the PE routers
E. It supports interworking for Frame Relay,PPP,and Ethernet,but not ATM
F. The attachment circuit is configured with the xconnect command
Refer to the exhibit. You are configuring Router 1 and Router 2 for L2TPv3 tunneling.
Which two additional configurations are required to enable Router 1 and Router 2 to establish the tunnel?(Choose two)
A. Loopback 0 on Router 1 must be advertised to Router 2
B. An IP address must be configured on interface FastEthernet1/0 on Router 1
C. Cisco Disconvery Protocol must be enabled on interface FastEhternet1/0 on Router 1
D. Router 1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under the pseudowire-class R1toR2
E. Cisco Express Forwarding must be disabled on Router 1
Which IPv4 feature can limit indiscriminate flooding of multicast traffic on a VLAN?
A. PIM Snooping
B. IGMP Snooping
C. MLD Filtering
D. IGMP Filtering
Refer to the exhibit. You have configured R1 to connect to two different ISPs.
Which Cisco IOS security feature can you configure on R1 to reduce the risk of malicious IP spoofing while allowing traffic from Host B to reach Host A through both ISPs?
A. uRPF strict mode
B. IP source guard
C. uRPF loose mode
D. port security
Which statement about Embedded Packet Capture is true?
A. A capture point can be associated with muitiple capture buffers
B. Capture data is stored in the router’s NVRAM
C. Capture data is stored in the router’s DRAM
D. It can capture unicast traffic only
E. The capture configuration is persistent when the router is restarted
Which ISAKMP feature can protect a GDOL from a hacker using a network sniffer while a security association is
A. an ISAKMP Phase 1 security association
B. an ISAKMP Phase 2 GROUPKEY-PULL exchange
C. a ISAKMP Phase 2 GROUPKEY-PUSH exchange
D. an ISAKMP Phase 2 security association
E. the Proof of Possession(POP)
Refer to the exhibit. Which Qos mechanism is in use to prioritize voice traffic?
A. priority queuing
B. fair queuing
D. low-latency queuing
E. custom queuing
Refer to the exhibit. Which EIGRP routes will appear in the routing table of R2?
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400-101 new questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDZklpdURSVWJKalE
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