[2017 New] Easily Pass 300-320 Exam By Training Lead2pass Latest VCE Dumps (26-50)
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Following questions and answers are all new published by Cisco Official Exam Center: https://www.lead2pass.com/300-320.html
CoS is applied for Layer 2 markings in an Ethernet environment. Which protocol must be configured on the Layer 2 switch port for CoS to work?
B. IEEE 802.1W
C. IEEE 802.1Q
D. IEEE 802.1S
Which protocol is used in an in-band network and why?
A. UDP, because it is connectionless
B. SSH, because the username and password are encrypted
C. Telnet, because the username and password are sent in clear
D. MSDP, because it uses TCP as its transport protocol
What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management?
A. It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management.
B. Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage.
C. There is no separation between the production network and the management network.
D. SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices.
The direction of the flow of multicast traffic is based on which protocol?
C. underlying IGP
“Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) PIM uses the unicast routing information to create a distribution tree along the reverse path from the receivers towards the source. The multicast routers then forward packets along the distribution tree from the source to the receivers. RPF is a key concept in multicast forwarding. It enables routers to correctly forward multicast traffic down the distribution tree. RPF makes use of the existing unicast routing table to determine the upstream and downstream neighbors. A router will forward a multicast packet only if it is received on the upstream interface. This RPF check helps to guarantee that the distribution tree will be loopfree.”
Which option can be implemented to manipulate the election of PIM DR to force multicast traffic to a certain path?
A. Assign a lower PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
B. Assign a lower IP address to the PIM DR interface.
C. Assign a higher PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
D. Increase the cost on the PIM DR interface.
What network technology provides Layer 2 high availability between the access and distribution layers?
On which two types of links should routing protocol peerings be established according to best practice? (Choose two.)
A. distribution links
B. end user links
C. transit links
D. core links
An HSRP design requirement states that preemption must be enabled for the active switch, which is a Cisco 4507R. Assume a boot time of 300 seconds. Which setting of the preemption delay timer minimizes the loss of traffic?
A. 50 seconds
B. 100 seconds
C. 150 seconds
D. 200 seconds
The recommended best practice is to measure the system boot time, and set the HSRP preempt delay
statement to 50 percent greater than this value. This ensures that the HSRP primary distribution node has
established full connectivity to all parts of the network before HSRP preemption is allowed to occur”-> We can’t choose 450 secondes so we take the higher delay available..
What is the next action taken by the Cisco NAC Appliance after it identifies a vulnerability on a client device?
A. denies the client network resource access
B. repairs the effected devices
C. generates a Syslog message
D. permits the client but limits to guest access
“Cisco NAC Appliance compliance policies reduce the threat of computer viruses, worms, and other malicious code on your network. Cisco NAC Appliance is a powerful tool that enables you to enforce network access requirements, detect security threats and vulnerabilities on clients, and distribute patches, antivirus and antispyware software. It lets you block access or quarantine users who do not comply with your security requirements, thereby stopping viruses and worms at the edge of the network, before they can do harm.”
Refer to the exhibit. A customer requires a web application implementation, but the web server has communication only to the application server and users, and the database server has communication only to the application server. What firewall design is the best fit for this scenario?
A. transparent mode with the servers on the same subnet
B. routed mode with three security zones
C. transparent mode with three security zones
D. routed mode with two security zones
Which route summarization most efficiently reduces perceived network complexity that is composed of subnetworks ranging from 172.16.20.0/24 to 172.16.36.0/24?
What is the recommended subnet between two sites that have a point-to-point connection to conserve IP addresses?
In which OSI layer does IS-IS operate?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
Which algorithm does IS-IS use to determine the shortest path through a network?
A. Bellman-Ford routing algorithm
B. Johnson’s algorithm
C. Dijkstra’s algorithm
D. Floyd-Warshall algorithm
Which unique EIGRP feature allows for faster Layer 3 convergence?
A. fast EIGRP timers
B. feasible successors
C. hybrid routing protocol
D. Cisco proprietary protocol
EIGRP uses which algorithm to build a routing table?
A. Dijkstra’s algorithm
B. Floyd-Warshall algorithm
C. Diffusing Update Algorithm
D. Johnson’s algorithm
A network engineer has implemented a looped triangle switch block design. What element must be included in the design?
A. first hop redundancy protocol
B. Layer 2 links between access switches
C. single uplinks between access and distribution switches
D. VLANs that span access switches
E. Layer 3 links between distribution switches
Refer to the exhibit. Which two features can enable high availability for first-hop Layer 3 redundancy? (Choose two.)
B. IGMP V2
To which network layer should Cisco Express Forwarding be tuned to support load balancing and to make more informed forwarding decisions?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
E. Layer 5
F. Layer 6
G. Layer 7
A Layer 2 switch in the network has recently started broadcasting traffic out of every port and is impacting network performance. The engineering department determines that a MAC overflow attack is the cause. Which two features can protect and mitigate the damage of the attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Storm Control
B. Port Security
D. BPDU Filters
E. IP Source Guard
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration, why are routers R1 and R2 not exchanging OSPF routes?
A. The OSPF process numbers are different.
B. There is no backbone area configured.
C. The router IDs are different.
D. OSPF is not enabled on the interfaces.
An engineer notices that many BGP peers utilize the same configuration parameters. What can the engineer configure to simplify BGP neighbor statements and generate more efficient BGP peer updates?
A. peer groups
B. policy templates
C. session templates
D. peer address families
What is the correct state between two BGP peers that are neighbors?
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer manually reconfigures the BGP configuration on newly upgraded router R1. However, the BGP neighbor relationship does not come up with the directly connected neighbor router. What is causing the failure of the BGP neighbor relationship between routers R1 and R2?
A. An incorrect neighbor IP address for router R2 is configured on router R1.
B. An incorrect neighbor AS number is configured on router R1 for router R2.
C. The wrong BGP authentication password is configured on router R1.
D. Router R1 must configure the R2 loopback address as the neighbor IP address.
Which option is a primary requirement for the deployment of an IPv6-enabled network via the native method (dual-stack model) within the enterprise campus environment?
A. hardware-based switching support for IPv6 forwarding on all campus switches
B. restriction of IPv6-enabled devices to the core layer
C. manual implementation of tunneling between IPv6-incompatible devices in an IPv4-over-IPv6 tunnel
D. disabling of multicast in the distribution layer prior to implementation of IPv6
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